Same Thing – Only Different?
Have you ever heard someone say this? What does this even mean? Does it mean ‘similar’? If so, why not say similar? Has it not occurred to some that the “same thing” is not a “different thing”? Perhaps those who support, defend and use some of these so-called bibles prescribe to the idea that similar is OK. They use the ‘version of the Bible’ they prefer (follow their own will) and expect all to be ‘on the same page’. Some offer the idea that we just don’t understand things alike. To me this is equally confusing. One either understands something or they do not! Things are the same or they are different.
As we look into God’s Word, notice that the word ‘different’ is not found in the sacred text even once. 1Cor. 4:7 is the only place the word ‘differ’ can be found. The brethren there were asked: “For who maketh thee to differ from another?” On the other hand, in 1Cor. 1:10 these same brethren were told to speak the “same thing” and “be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.” Additionally, in Phil. 3:16, even as the Word was first being delivered, we see how this is accomplished. They were told “let us walk by the same rule (God’s Word), let us mind the same thing.”
Earlier, I mentioned so-called Bibles. There are many ‘versions’ (perversions) of the Word of God. For instance, the prophecy of Isa. 7:14 of the KJV Bible reads. Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Contrast that with what is found in the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) for the same verse. Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel. This is not even a prophecy! “Young women” have been bearing children since shortly after Adam and Eve sinned and were banished from the Garden of Eden. There are many other examples of this in many of the ‘perversions’ of God’s Word, but time and space prevents a listing of them here.
I want to know, What is the “Standard Version” of the Bible, and why did it need to be revised in the first place. Also I ask, was there ever an “Old” Revised Version? I have been able to determine that this particular mutation, (or perversion) of the Bible came into being in 1989 and was derived from the “Revised Standard Version” 2nd edition, which came out in 1971. The NRSV updated version was released in 2021 and is now called the NRSVue. From Wikipedia, we find that the NRSV is a translation of the Bible in contemporary English. It was published by the “National Council of Churches”, (the largest ecumenical body in the United States) and was produced by a committee “comprising about thirty members”.
By contrast, the KJV Bible was commissioned in 1604 and published in 1611. There was an ‘update’ in 1769 to change spelling from Olde English, and to make a few typesetting changes, but not to alter or ‘revise’ the content. The Word of God has been ‘translated’ on many occasions, and into many languages. However, a translation is not an alteration or changing of the text. A translation is not the “same thing - only different”. A translation is the “same thing” but presented in a different language.
Man has been “commanded” in the Old and New Testaments not to “add to or take away” from or “alter” God’s Word. There are serious ramifications for so doing. A ‘revision’ of God’s Word is an alteration. True ‘translation’ is not alteration. The Holy Spirit provided ‘translation’ of the N.T. Word of God before it was even written. We are told in Acts 2:5 as the Jews had assembled for Pentecost as Commanded under the Law of Moses, Jews from ‘every nation under heaven’ were gathered. In verses 6-8, the multitude heard in their own tongues (languages) as the apostles spoke. It was also noted that these apostles were Galileans. It is affirmed that each heard “in our tongues the wonderful words of God” in verse 11. They did not hear the ‘same thing – only different’ but heard the same thing (the Word of God), each person hearing in their own language.
Additionally, from Acts chapter 3 and 4 we read of the healing of the lame beggar at the gate called Beautiful, the preaching from Solomon’s porch, and the conversion of about five thousand. The Jewish council was “grieved that they taught the people, and preached through Jesus the resurrection from the dead” (Acts 4:2). In Acts 4:13 the council perceived that Peter and John were “unlearned and ignorant men”. This simply means that these apostles were not recipients of “higher education”. There is nothing wrong with education, but one can be educated and remain ‘ignorant’. According to Felix, as he chided the apostle Paul in Acts 26:24 he said: “much learning doth make thee mad”. Again, education is not a bad thing (if it is the right education). The proper application of the learning is what makes the difference.
A little later, in Acts 26:28, Agrippa told Paul “Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian”. Paul’s inspired answer is in vs 29. “I would to God, that not only thou, but also all that hear me this day, were both almost, and altogether such as I am, except these bonds.” Is ‘almost’ the same thing – only different than ‘altogether’? Is a “religious person” the same thing – only different than a Christian? Is “to live a good clean life” the same thing – only different than to obey and serve God according to His Word? Think about it!
Dennis Strickland – Mooresville church of Christ
